The paper asserts that the dimunition of risk is due to the increase in cyclists. Could it be the other way round, that more cycle as it becomes less risky (due to unknown factors...)?
The risk reduction is purely for cyclists/walkers. Would the population as a whole experience less risk if they all drove? In extremis, if all cycled, they would have no cars to collide with, while if none cycled, there would be zero cycling risk.
It would be instructive to know if walkers/cyclists reduced their risk of heart attacks and other diseases mediated by regular exercise.
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